I said it would be unworkable, not unconstitutional.
Other parts of section 4 raise serious doubts. Section 4 (1) (b) sets out the fact that a chemist, his servant or agent may supply contraceptives to a person on foot of a prescription or authorisation, but apparently the situation is now to be that the chemist may supply to the named person who has to go to the doctor to have a prescription made out to him in his name for contraceptives. The spouse of the person to whom the prescription has been issued apparently would not be empowered to go to the chemist's shop with the prescription or authorisation. Similarly the husband of a woman would not be allowed to go to the chemist's shop to have the prescription or authorisation dispensed. Does that not seem a rather unfair, unnecessary restriction? The Minister might care to explain why he is insisting that only the person to whom the contraceptive prescription is issued must attend personally at the chemist's shop to have the prescription filled. It does not seem reasonable. There is the even more ridiculous position that the pharmacist apparently will find that while he is selling contraceptives to other people on foot of these scripts he will be obliged to obtain a script from a doctor in order to supply himself with contraceptives. Otherwise if a chemist were to sell contraceptives to himself he would be clearly in breach of the provisions of section 4.
I referred last night at some length to the use of the phrase "bona fide” and the difficulty it had created. I asked the Minister to explain why he had used the phrase “bona fide” in the legislation. He suggested, perhaps a little facetiously, that it was because of his classical education. My reason for inquiring is that in recent legislation on the Landlord and Tenant Amendment Bill, 1979, which was an amendment of the 1930 Act, the phrase “bona fide” was dropped. When the Minister of State at the Department of Foreign Affairs, Deputy D. Andrews, who handled that Bill in the Seanad, was questioned as to why “bona fide” was no longer being used his explanation was that it is just a piece of superfluous jargon which lawyers are inclined to use. I think he would agree that it is not necessary in the context and is purely a drafting matter. The phrase “bona fide” is a cliche. Why use the words? Why not use the words “with the best of intentions”? The Minister of State went on to say that it was about time we started to use printable and understandable English. When the matter was raised again in the Seanad on 2 May by way of amendment the Minister of State said, as reported in the Official Report of the Seanad, column 15, Volume 92:
The language is there, but it is out-of-date language. It has not been updated and consequently is meaningless to anybody who would wish to understand it, except lawyers....
We have an obligation to make Acts meaningful not only to the people who practise the law but the people who actually use the law in defence of their interests.
It is also a well-known matter of social justice that people in the capacity of private citizens are entitled to go to the courts without, dare I say it, the services of a solicitor or a barrister.
Consequently, to ensure that fundamental concept of social justice we have an obligation to make Bills in this House, which eventually become Acts, as meaningful as possible. I have no reason to change my views in relation to the use of the words "bona fide”.
If the Minister handling the Landlord and Tenant Bill, which is a very complicated piece of legislation, should speak as strongly as that against the use of the words "bona fide” because it is not clearly understood by the general public, why has this Minister chosen to use the words “bona fide” in a section where the unfortunate doctor and the person visiting him will both be obliged to interpret for themselves what “bona fide” means? If the Landlord and Tenant Act, which is normally interpreted by lawyers, has the words “bona fide” excluded from it because the Minister believed it to be a cliché in lawyers' jargon, why are we including those words in a Bill which is to determine the decisions to be made by doctors for their patients? I tried to raise that matter last night but I am afraid the Minister did not deal with it to my satisfaction. The main objection to section 4 is that it places a very unfair obligation on the doctor to decide which people should or should not have contraceptives made available to them.