asked the Minister for Foreign Affairs the number of times the veto has been used by (a) Ireland and (b) other member countries of the EEC; and on what issues.
Ceisteanna—Questions. Oral Answers. - Use of Veto.
25.
The reply to the first part of the question is "never". As regards (b), the position is that, strictly speaking, a veto has never been used by other member countries of the EEC. That is to say, there has been no occasion when a matter was put to the vote in the Council and action was blocked as a result of one country registering a veto. Since 1965, the Luxembourg "agreement" has been observed according to which Council decisions are taken unanimously where very important interests of one or more member states are involved.
The Minister said, speaking on the 28th February in this House, that the veto was most frequently used by large countries. How can he align that with his statement now?
I have not got a record here of what I actually said. If I used the form of words mentioned by the Deputy I was speaking loosely. Speaking here I am giving a strict technical reply to the question.
The words the Minister used were: The veto is used most frequently by large countries.
In that case—allow me to reply if you want the answer— strictly speaking the veto is not used in the sense that there is an actual vote but when it is clear that a country is not prepared to agree to something which it sees as being contrary to its vital interests the matter is not pursued, it is withdrawn or postponed. The effect of the veto is there without the actual veto being formally registered I am glad to clarify that point.
So what the Minister said at column 1815 volume 270 of the Official Report is incorrect?
It could have been better expressed.